Let ${p_{1}},{p_{2}},\ldots,{p_{n}}$ and ${a_{1}},{a_{2}},\ldots,{a_{n}}$ be positive real numbers and let $r$ be a real number. Then for $r\ne0$ , we define ${M_{r}}(a,p)={\left({\frac{{{p_{1}}a_{1}^{r}+{p_{2}}a_{2}^{r}+\cdots+{p_{n}}a_{n}^{r}}}{{{p_{1}}+{p_{2}}+\cdots+{p_{n}}}}}\right)^{1/r}}$ and for $r=0$ , we define ${M_{0}}(a,p)={\left({a_{1}^{{p_{1}}}a_{2}^{{p_{2}}}\cdots a_{n}^{{p_{n}}}}\right)}^{1/\sum\nolimits _{i=1}^{n}p_i}$ . Then prove that $ {M_{{k_{1}}}}(a,p)\geqslant{M_{{k_{2}}}}(a,p) $ if $k_{1}\geqslant k_{2}$.
How to prove this generalized theorem? I have found this in a book without any proof. So can anyone show me?
In fact this inequality is a generalized Radon inequality present in this paper : A note on the proofs of generalized Radon inequality. See the Theorem 2.2 for a proof . This paper is very interesting because we can see the link between differents inequalities like :
(i) Bernoulli inequality,
(ii) the weighted AM-GM inequality,
(iii) Holder inequality,
(iv) the weighted power mean inequality,
(v) Minkovski inequality,
(vi) Radon inequality.
See the theorem 2.3 for that .