Intersection between invariant curves for a map that coming from an autonomus vector field.

178 Views Asked by At

Consider the system of differential equation

$$\dot x = f(x) $$ with $x\in{M}$ where $f$ is a function of the only $x$, so the system is autonomus. Now let $\phi^t(x)$ be the flow of the system, that is the solution at time $t$ with initial condition $x(0)=x$.

Fixing a time $\tau$ one can consider the map

$$\phi^\tau: x\in M\rightarrow \phi^\tau(x) \in M$$.

So one can consider the sequence ${x_k}$ defined by $x_k= \phi^{k\tau}(x_0)$ given $x_0\in M$. This is called orbit.

An invariant set $D$ is a set such that $\phi^\tau(D) \subseteq D$.

My question is: given two invariant curves $\gamma_1,\gamma_2$ for the map above, can these $\gamma_1$ intersect $\gamma_2$? I know that this is true in general for a map, but what happen if the map coming from a time independent vector field, as in this case? I think that this is not true ( there's no intersection ) in view the property of the phase space of autonomus ODE: for any $x_0$ in $M$ there exists only one solution passing through this point.

In the notes of my teacher i read this sentence: " intersection between two invariant curve cannot happen for that map which comes from the discretization of flow of vector field independent with respect to time". So, is this sentence wrong?

1

There are 1 best solutions below

10
On BEST ANSWER

It can happen: as a trivial counterexample imagine zero vector field, ie. nothing moves at all. Then the time-$\tau$ map $\phi^\tau$ is the identity for any $\tau$ so any curve is an invariant curve for the map and you are free to choose whatever you want as your two invariant curves.

But it is a very common intutiton to think the opposite. The problem is that one tends to imagine considered invariant curves as orbits of the flow $\phi$ and for these the statement obviously holds, more precisely, in general, two orbits of a flow are either identical or disjoint. This is still true for the orbits of any time-$\tau$ map because it is a homeomorphism but an invariant set for this map consists, in principle, of many orbits of the map.

It is not that difficult to construct also nontrivial examples: think, for example, about a flow on an infinite horizontal tube (cylinder) with constant unit speed in horizontal direction. Then take as the first invariant curve any horizontal line on the tube. Now fix any $\tau$ (eg. $\tau = 1$) and construct the second invariant curve in such a way that it wraps around the tube and does one revolution in exactly time $\tau$.