On the arbitrariness of the definition of completely positiveness.

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For a linear (super)-operator $\Psi : \mathbb{C}^{n\times n} \to \mathbb{C}^{m\times m} $, I am wondering whethe

$$ \text{Id}_{k} \otimes \Psi \text{ is positive for each } k\ge 1$$

is equivalent to $$ \Psi \otimes \text{Id}_{k} \text{ is positive for each } k\ge 1$$ In particular, I want to know whether positiveness of $\text{Id}_{k} \otimes \Psi$ is equivalent to positiveness of $\Psi \otimes \text{Id}_{k}$ or not.

Thanks in advance.