I don't understand something basic about the following answer to this question on mathoverflow:
Angelo Vistoli writes: Let $X = \mathop{\rm Spec}R$, where $R := k[x,y]/(y^2 - x^3 + x^2)$. Consider the finite morphism $\pi\colon \mathbb A^1 \to X$, which yields an exact sequence $$ 0 \to \mathbb Z_X \to \pi_*\mathbb Z_{\mathbb A^1} \to i_*\mathbb Z_x \to 0, $$ where $x$ is the singular point of $X$. Since both $\pi_*\mathbb Z_{\mathbb A^1}$ and $i_*\mathbb Z_x$ have trivial étale cohomology , by taking global sections we see that $\mathrm H^1(X, \mathbb Z) = \mathbb Z$.
Okay, my basic question is why $\pi_*\mathbb Z_{\mathbb A^1}$ and $i_*\mathbb Z_x$ have trivial étale cohomology? Also, even a more basic question just to check my understanding - $\pi_*\mathbb Z_{\mathbb A^1}$ and $i_*\mathbb Z_x$ are not coherent sheaves, right? $H^1_{et}(X, \pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1}) = R^1\pi_* \mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb A^1}$ ... not sure if that's true or useful.
First, your even more basic question. Indeed $\pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1}$ and $i_*\mathbb{Z}_x$ are not coherent sheaves. In fact, they are not even sheaves of $\mathcal{O}_X$ modules. And as Remy points out, $H^1_{ét}(X,\pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1})$ and $R^1\pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1}$ are not the same kind of objects, the first being a group, the latter being a sheaf on $X$.
For your second question, Angelo uses the well known fact that finite morphism have vanishing direct images. In general, I see this as a consequence of the proper base change theorem, but in fact there is a direct proof which work with every sheaves of sets, see here : http://stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/03QN.
It follows that $H^i_{ét}(X,\pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1})=\mathbb{H}^i_{ét}(X,R\pi_*\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1})=H^i(\mathbb{A}^1,\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1})$. And similarly, you have $H^i_{ét}(X,i_*\mathbb{Z}_x)=\mathbb{H}^i_{ét}(X,Ri_*\mathbb{Z}_x)=H^i(x,\mathbb{Z}_x)$. So it remains to show that the two groups $H^1(\mathbb{A}^1,\mathbb{Z}_{\mathbb{A}^1})$ and $H^1(x,\mathbb{Z}_x)$ are zero. This follows from the canonical isomorphism $H^1(Y,A)=\operatorname{Hom}_{cont}(\pi_1(Y),A)$ and the fact that $\pi_1(Y)$ being profinite for $Y$ normal noetherian, there is no continuous group homomorphism $\pi_1(Y)\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$.