I know the result incidence matrix of a bipartite graph is totally unimodular.
But I am stuck with a converse statement:
Let $Q$ be the $0–1$ incidence matrix of the graph $G$, if $Q$ is totally unimodular then $G$ is bipartite.
Require some hints to do the problem.
Hint: Show that the incidence matrix of an odd cycle is not totally unimodular.