Take 13 integers. Prove that if any 12 of them can be partitioned into two sets of six each with equal sums, then all the integers are the same.
Does anyone know if the general case with 2n+1 integers and sets of n integers results in the same conclusion?
This is true for arbitrary reals and arbitrary splits. A recent answer I posted on cstheory:
To answer the more general question,
This is true.
Instead of reals, start with integers.
Notice that if $\displaystyle S$ is the total sum, then $\displaystyle S = r_i \mod n$ and so $\displaystyle r_i = r_j \mod n$.
wlog assume $\displaystyle r_1$ is the smallest.
Then we have a new set of weights
$\displaystyle \frac{r_i - r_1}{n}$ which has lower $\displaystyle \text{max}\{r_i\}$ (note all have become non-negative so we can assume they were non-negative to begin with) and hence we end up with all zeroes. Since this is reversible, the original must have been equal.
Thus if the weights were integers, they all have to be the same. This easily extends to rationals weights.
Now since $\displaystyle \mathbb{R}$ is an infinite dimensional vector space over $\displaystyle \mathbb{Q}$, we are done. (Search the web for Hamel Basis).