I'm trying to solve the 1D heat equation with inhomogeneous boundary conditions.
$u_t=Ku_{xx}$
$u_x(0,t)=F_0 \hspace{0.2cm} and\hspace{0.2cm} u_x(L,t)=F_1$
$u(x,0)=f(x)$
My first step was to write the solution in two parts:
- $U(x)$, which satisfies the time-independent heat equation
- $\hat{u}(x,t)$, which will produce the correct homogenous Neumann conditions
So,
$u(x,t) = U(x) + \hat{u}(x,t)$
Since $U(x)$ has no dependence on time, $U_t=0$, so impose that
$0=KU_{xx}$
$U_x(0)=F_0 \hspace{0.2cm} and\hspace{0.2cm} U_x(L)=F_1$
This is where I get stuck when I solve for the steady-state solution I get $F_0=F_1$. Looking around on the internet I have come across using a particular solution instead of a steady-state solution where
$U(x,t) = \frac{F_0-F_1}{2L}x^2-F_0x+\frac{K^2(F_0-F_1)}{L}t$
However, I do not understand this step, or how they find that particular solution. I was hoping someone could explain?