It's easy to verify that 2 is a primitive root mod $3^2$. But then why does it follow that 2 is a primitive root mod $3^h$ for any positive integer $h$?
This was used in the solution of 2009 Putnam B6 http://math.hawaii.edu/home/pdf/putnam/Putnam_2009.pdf
I saw this Primitive roots of odd primes but unfortunately I don't have access to the book.
It's a general result that any primitive root modulo $p^2$ will serve as a primitive root for $p^k$ for any positive integer $k$. One way to show this is by lifting the required congruences using this lemma.
Suppose $g$ is a primitive root modulo $p^2$. Then it follows that $$g^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{p}$$ $$g^{p-1} \not\equiv 1 \pmod{p^2}$$ Using the lemma, we can lift this into $p^3$ as $$g^{p(p-1)}\not\equiv 1 \pmod{p^3}$$
This shows that $g$ is a primitive root modulo $p^3$ since $$\mathrm{ord}(g)\mid p^2(p-1)\ \ \ \ \ \text{but}\ \ \ \ \ \mathrm{ord}(g)\nmid p(p-1)$$ and this necessarily implies that $\mathrm{ord}(g) = p^2(p-1) = \phi(p)$.
We can use the lemma to lift again into $p^4$ and then $p^5$ and so on. The same argument shown inductively will prove that $g$ is in fact a primitive modulo any $p^k$.