This is a question from Knuths "The art of programming"
Among all $2^n$ sequences $a_1 a_2 ... a_n$ where each $a_j$ is either 0 or 1, how many have exactly k runs (that is, k-1 occurences of $a_j$ < $a_{j+1})$.
It's even answered with $ \binom {n+1} {2k-1}$, because $\binom{n}{2k-2}$ end with 0 and $\binom{n}{2k-1}$ end with 1, but I don't underestand why this holds.
Using $z$ for zeros and $w$ for ones and $u$ for runs we get the generating function
$$(1+z+z^2+\cdots) \\ \times \sum_{q\ge 0} u^{q} (w+w^2+\cdots)^q (z+z^2+\cdots)^q \\ \times (1+w+w^2+\cdots)$$
which is
$$\frac{1}{1-z} \\ \times \sum_{q\ge 0} u^{q} \frac{w^q}{(1-w)^q} \frac{z^q}{(1-z)^q} \\ \times \frac{1}{1-w}$$
or
$$\frac{1}{1-z} \frac{1}{1-uwz/(1-z)/(1-w)} \frac{1}{1-w} \\ = \frac{1}{(1-z)(1-w)-uwz}.$$
As a sanity check we put $u=1$ and $w=z$ to obtain
$$\frac{1}{(1-z)^2 - z^2} = \frac{1}{1-2z}$$
and we see that we have accounted for all strings of length $n.$ We no longer need the distinction between zeros and ones here so we obtain
$$\frac{1}{(1-z)^2-uz^2} = \frac{1}{(1-z)^2}\frac{1}{1-uz^2/(1-z)^2}.$$
Extract the coefficient on $[u^k]$ to get
$$\frac{z^{2k}}{(1-z)^{2k+2}}.$$
Continue with the coefficient on $[z^n]$ to obtain
$$[z^n] \frac{z^{2k}}{(1-z)^{2k+2}} = [z^{n-2k}] \frac{1}{(1-z)^{2k+2}} \\ = {n-2k+2k+1\choose 2k+1} = {n+1\choose 2k+1}$$
as claimed.
Here is the Maple code for this to clarify what interpretation of the question is being used:
X := proc(n) option remember; local pos, d, ind, k, res; res := 0; for ind from 2^n to 2^(n+1)-1 do d := convert(ind, base, 2); k := 0; for pos to n-1 do if d[pos] > d[pos+1] then k := k + 1; fi; od; res := res + v^k; od; res; end; F := n -> add(binomial(n+1,2*k+1)*v^k, k=0..floor(n/2));This will yield e.g. for $n=10$ the generating function
$${v}^{5}+55\,{v}^{4}+330\,{v}^{3}+462\,{v}^{2}+165\,v+11.$$
The GF points us to OEIS A034867 where it is listed as non-increasing runs, which is the same by symmetry as non-decreasing ones.
Remark. The above counts boundaries between adjacent runs. So if we have $k-1$ boundaries we get $k$ runs. On substituting $k-1$ into the closed form we find
$${n+1\choose 2(k-1)+1} = {n+1\choose 2k-1}$$
which agrees with the OP.