I don't understand the proof of ‖x‖2=‖xT‖2.
I know you can use the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality and that you can prove it by first showing ‖xT‖2 ⩽ ‖x‖2 and then ‖x‖2 ⩽ ‖xT‖2. I get proving both inequalities implies that ‖x‖2=‖xT‖2.
Though I don't get how the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality is used to proves this. I would really appreciate getting a step by step on how you get to it, because I simply don't understand.
First of all, we should understand exactly what the definition of $\|x^T\|_2$ is in this context. Whereas $\|x\|_2$ is simply the Euclidean norm of $x$, $\|x^T\|_2$ refers to the "operator norm" or "induced norm" of the matrix $x^T$. That is, $$ \|x^T\|_2 = \max_{\|y\|_2 = 1} \|x^Ty\|_2 = \max_{\|y\|_2 = 1} |x^Ty| $$ (see note below for $\|x^Ty\|_2$ vs $|x^Ty|$). The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality tells us that for any particular $y$ with $\|y\|_2 = 1$, we have $$ |x^Ty|_2 \leq \|x\|_2\,\|y\|_2 = \|x\|_2 \cdot 1 = \|x\|_2. $$ It follows that the maximum $\max_{\|y\|_2 = 1} |x^Ty|$ that we are interested in is at most equal to $\|x\|_2$. That is, $\|x^T\|_2 \leq \|x\|_2$.
As for the other direction of the inequality, I'm not sure how one can get this by using Cauchy-Schwarz again. One approach is simply to note that there is a unit vector $y$ such that $|x^Ty| = \|x\|_2$, meaning that $\max_{\|y\|_2 = 1} |x^Ty| \geq \|x\|_2$. To that end, we can consider $y = x/\|x\|_2$, and find that $$ |x^Ty| = \frac{x^Tx}{\|x\|_2} = \frac{\|x\|_2^2}{\|x\|_2} = \|x\|_2. $$ So, we can indeed conclude that $\|x^T\|_2 = \|x\|_2$.
Note: In the expression $\|x^Ty\|_2$, $x^Ty$ is a vector in $\Bbb R^1$ corresponding to the linear map from $\Bbb R^n$ to $\Bbb R^1$ that is encoded by $x$. In the expression $|x^Ty|$, we are considering the single entry of this entry of this vector as a number and taking the absolute value of this number. Whether these are meaningfully distinct is a matter of philosophy.