Assume that $a$ and $b$ are elements of the group $G$, then if $a \in \langle b\rangle $, then $\langle a\rangle \subseteq \langle b\rangle$
How can I prove the foregoing identity? It is from the book modern algebra exercise $27$. It doesn't have solution in the book. Can you help me?
The only thing came to my mind:
$a$ is element of the set generated by $b$. If we say that the order of $\langle b\rangle$ is $k$, then $a^{xy}=b^k=e$. This knowledge doesn't help me
Any link,answer or additional material appreciated !
We have a group $(G,\cdot)$ Let's have a look at the definitions $$\langle b \rangle := \{g \in G : g = b^k, k\in \Bbb Z\}\\ \langle a \rangle := \{g \in G : g = a^h, h\in \Bbb Z\}$$
So we have that if $g \in \langle a \rangle $ $$g = a^h$$ For the hypothesis $a\in \langle b\rangle$ so we have $$g = a^h = (b^k)^h = b^{kh}\in \langle b \rangle$$ This argument holds for every $g \in \langle a \rangle$ and so $\langle a \rangle \subseteq \langle b \rangle$.
P.S. I'm using multiplicative group notation could you prove the same holds in additive notation?