$(a,b) = 1$ iff whenever $p$ is prime and $p \vert a$, then $p \nmid b$

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here is my proof attempt:

$\Rightarrow$ Direction;

Since $(a,b) = 1$, $\exists x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$ $\ni$

$ax + by = 1$

But $p \vert a$ $\Rightarrow$ $p \vert ax$

Suppose towards a contradiction that $p \vert b$, then $p \vert by$, hence

$p \vert ax + by$

$p \vert 1$

Contradiction since $p$ is prime, $\therefore$ $p \nmid b$.

$\Leftarrow$ Direction;

Let $a = p_1^{e_1} p_2^{e_2} \cdot \cdot \cdot p_m^{e_m}$ and $b = q_1^{f_1}q_2^{f_2} \cdot \cdot \cdot q_n^{f_n}$ ; not all $e_i,f_i$ zero.

We want to show

$p_i^{e_i} \neq q_j^{e_j}$ (**) for no $i,j$ between 1 and $m,n$ resp.

But $p \vert a$ $\Rightarrow$ $p = p_i^{e_i}$ some $i, 1 \leq i \leq m$

By our assumption, $p \vert a$ $\Rightarrow$ $p \nmid b$

$\Rightarrow$ $p = p_i^{e_i} \neq q_j^{f_j}$ for any $j$.

Hence (**) satisfied, ($a$, $b$ share no common prime factors), $\Rightarrow$ $(a,b) = 1$

I use the FTOA when rewriting $a$ and $b$.