Does the following always hold?
$|a-b| \geq | |a| - |b| | \Longleftrightarrow |a-b| \geq |a| - |b| $
Certainly, the second inequality implies the first, but the converse isn't so clear to me.
If it does hold, then why do we define the 'reverse triangle inequality' as the first inequality in the above?
Both inequalities are always true, hence the bi-conditional is valid.
Explicitly, $$|a| = |(a-b) + b| \le |a-b| + |b|$$ hence $|a-b| \ge |a|-|b|$.
Thus, the RHS is always true.
Similarly, $$|b| = |(b-a) + a| \le |b-a| + |a| = |a-b| + |a|$$ hence $|a-b| \ge |b|-|a|$.
Since we have both $$|a-b| \ge |a|-|b|$$ $$|a-b| \ge |b|-|a|$$ it follows that $|a-b| \ge ||a|- |b||$.
Thus, the LHS is always true.