This must be known, but I haven't found it and want help to prove it:
For all $a,b\in \mathbb Z$, $\gcd(a,b)^2=\gcd(a^2+b^2,ab)$
Tested for $10,000,000$ pseudo random number pairs.
From time to time, when testing my growing math packages BigZ and Forthmath, I recognize some patterns which I can't prove or disprove (or even have the ambition to). I post them here with the hope that it will not annoy too much. I hope you can bear with it.
Both ways are quite easy : if $d = (a,b)$, then $d | a$ and $d | b$, so $d^2 | a^2, d^2 | b^2$ so $d^2 | a^2 + b^2$, and similarly, $d^2 | ab$. Consequently, $d^2 | (a^2 + b^2,ab)$.
The other way, consider the numbers $\frac ad$ and $\frac bd$. Note that these are coprime. Write $a \to \frac ad,b \to \frac bd$ so that $a,b$ are now coprime. We can see that if $p | a$ and $p \nmid b$ then $p | ab$ but $p \nmid a^2 + b^2$, and similarly if $p|b$ but $p \nmid a$. Consequently, $ab$ and $a^2+b^2$ don't share any prime factors. Therefore, $(ab,a^2+b^2) = 1$. The statement is therefore true when $a,b$ are coprime, and the general case follows from the fact that $(cd,ed) = d$ if $c,e$ are coprime, with $c = a^2+b^2,e = ab$ and $d = (a,b)$.