Based on a few brute-force calculations, I've formulated the following.
Conjecture. Let $x,y,u,v,p,q,a,b,c \ge 2$ be integers such that $$ (x^2+ay^2)(u^2+bv^2) = p^2+cq^2, $$ and write \begin{align} g_1 &= \gcd(x,y)\gcd(u,v)\gcd(p,q), \\ g_2 &= \gcd(a,xy)\gcd(b,uv)\gcd(c,pq), \\ g_3 &= \gcd(a,b)\gcd(a,c)\gcd(b,c). \end{align} Then $g_1g_2g_3>1$.
Is the conjecture true? What would be a good way of trying to prove it? Alternatively, what would be a good way of narrowing the search for counterexamples (e.g., modular considerations, etc.)?
Note that it isn't enough to simply restrict $g_1 = 1$, since $$(x,a,y,u,b,v,p,c,q)=(2, 2, 3, 3, 7, 2, 2, 10, 9)$$ is a solution with $g_1=1$ (but $g_2g_3>1$).
ORIGINAL POST:
I have an equation of the form $$ (x^2+ay^2)(u^2+bv^2) = p^2+cq^2, $$ where $a,b,c$ are pairwise relatively prime squarefree integers.
Are there any important results regarding this special equation?
EDIT: In Composition of Binary Forms and the Foundation of Mathematics, Harold M. Edwards says that Gauss [ca. Art 235/236 of Disquisitiones Arithmeticae] proved the following theorem:
If $f$ and $\phi$ can be composed, the ratio of their determinants must be a ratio of squares.
Is this really a necessary and sufficient condition? If so, doesn’t the fact that my equation $$ (x^2+ay^2)(u^2+bv^2) = p^2+cq^2 $$ have two forms on the left-hand side being composed into the single form on the right-hand side then demand that the determinants of the two left-hand forms must be a ratio of squares?
EDIT: Cross-posted to MO a more specific question about the existence or derivation of a complete solution.
Never mind: I found a counterexample…
$$(x,a,y,u,b,v,p,c,q)=(1471528, 9777203, 9668027, 5703851, 3364185, 2582134, 16, 819951918602068063799187294877418918951, 5)$$