The statement of the theorem said :
If $a \equiv b \pmod n$ then $ac \equiv bc \pmod n$.
But I have seen it in other place as:
$a \equiv b \pmod n$ then $ac \equiv bc \pmod {nc}$.
Are they equivalent ? if so why?
The statement of the theorem said :
If $a \equiv b \pmod n$ then $ac \equiv bc \pmod n$.
But I have seen it in other place as:
$a \equiv b \pmod n$ then $ac \equiv bc \pmod {nc}$.
Are they equivalent ? if so why?
Well, they both hold.
By definition of modular congruence, $a\equiv b\pmod n$ means $n|b-a$, that is, $b-a=dn$ for some $d$.
But then $bc-ac=dnc$, showing $ac\equiv bc\pmod{nc}$.
Generally, if $x\equiv y\pmod{nc}$, we always have $x\equiv y\pmod n$, too, because the condition means $nc|y-x$ which implies $n|y-x$.