A doubt about the correspondence theorem.

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Let $f$ be a ring homomorphism from $R$ onto $R_1$. Then there is a one one correspondence between the set of all ideals of $R_1$ and the set of all ideals of $R$ that contain the kernel. Now what problem arises if I replace ideal by subring?

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The correspondence theorem also holds for subrings. So subrings of the image correspond to subrings between the kernel and $R$. I believe the proof for groups or for ideals work with a few slight modifications.