Let $p$ be a prime number. If $a \equiv b$ (mod $p$), does that imply $a^{p^n} \equiv b^{p^n}$ (mod $p^n$)?
I think the answer will be yes, and I suspect that the way of proving it will involve writing $a^{p^n}-b^{p^n}$ as a multiple of $(a-b)^n$.
I also noticed that $n<p^n$, and I'm wondering if this will make the proof easier or not.
$a=b+kp$ where $k$ is an integer
$(b+kp)^{p^n}=b^{p^n}+\binom{p^n}1b^{p^n-1}kp+\binom{p^n}2b^{p^n-2}(kp)^{2}+\cdots+(kp)^{p^n}$
$\equiv b^{p^n}\pmod{p^{n+1}}$