I have this exercise which I found very difficult:
$(A,+,.)$ is a finite pseudo-ring (a structure satisfying all the axioms of a ring except for the existence of a multiplicative identity), and $(a,b)\in A^2$ such that $ab^2=b$, prove that $bab=b$.
I used every possible combination of powers of $a$ and $b$ but didn't find anything, the idea I was using is the construction of a sequence $a^nb^m$ for example and there for there exist $n,m,n',m'$ such that $a^nb^m=a^{n'}b^{m'}$ and I use the given equality to reduce it, but it' s very difficult.
Can someone help me find the right sequence or the right method to solve this , thanks you
Here is the simplest form of the problem:
Solution. Let $G$ be the subset $\left\{ b \right\} \cup \left\{ bm \mid m \in M \right\}$ of $M$. Clearly, $G$ is a finite set. Moreover, a map $L_b : G \to G$ can be defined by $L_b \left(u\right) = bu$ for all $u \in G$.
Now, every $u \in G$ satisfies $a L_b\left(u\right) = u$. (Indeed, when $u = b$, this follows immediately from $a \underbrace{L_b\left(u\right)}_{=bu} = ab\underbrace{u}_{=b} = abb = ab^2 = b = u$. On the other hand, when $u = bm$ for some $m \in M$, this follows from $a \underbrace{L_b\left(u\right)}_{=bu} = ab\underbrace{u}_{=bm} = abbm = \underbrace{ab^2}_{=b}m = bm = u$.) This yields that every $u \in G$ can be uniquely reconstructed from $L_b\left(u\right)$. Hence, the map $L_b$ is injective. Thus, the map $L_b$ (being an injective map from the finite set $G$ to itself) must also be surjective. Hence, there exists some $u \in G$ such that $b = L_b\left(u\right)$ (since $b \in G$). Consider this $u$. We have $b = L_b\left(u\right) = bu$. But $u \in G$, so that either $u = b$, or $u = bm$ for some $m \in M$. Let us consider the second case. Thus, $u = bm$ for some $m \in M$. Then, $ab\underbrace{u}_{=bm} = abbm = \underbrace{ab^2}_{=b}m = bm = u$, so that $b\underbrace{abu}_{=u} = bu = b$, and therefore $b = ba\underbrace{bu}_{=b} = bab$. So we are done in the second case. In the first case, the same argument goes through, but with all the $m$'s removed. Thus, we are done in both cases.
Notice that we only used the finiteness of $G$, not the finiteness of $M$.