Question: Let R be a finite ring without zero divisors and |R| > 1. Then show that R is a division ring.
I used the following logic, but I'm not sure if this is correct.
Let |R| = n, a finite number. $Let 0 \not = a \in R.$
Therefore, $a^n = a => a(a^{n-1} - 1) = 0 => a^{n-1} = 1 \,\,\, (\text{Since} \,\, a \not = 0)$
Therefore, $a a^{n-2} = 1$
Therefore $a^{n-2}$ is the inverse of a for all a. Therefore R is a division ring.
Does this work?
Why do you think that $a^n=a$? This is not obvious at all. It will end up being true, because if it is a division ring then the nonzero elements will form a group under multiplication, and then it follows from Lagrange's theorem. But you have to prove it first.
First of all, by induction it follows that if $a\ne 0$ then $a^n\ne 0$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, this is because there are no zero divisors. Now, it is true that there are some $j>i$ such that $a^j=a^i$, because the set $\{a,a^2,a^3,a^4,...\}$ must be finite. Then $0=a^j-a^i=a^i(a^{j-i}-1)$. Since $a^i\ne 0$ it follows that $a^{j-i}-1=0$, again because there are no zero divisors. So now $a^{j-i-1}$ is an inverse of $a$.