Let A be an invertible matrix with complex entries and $d\geq 1$. Prove that if $A^d$ is diagonalizable then A is diagonalizable.
Also, What happens if we don't assume that A is invertible?
Ok, so A invertible and on $\mathbb{C}$ so, all the eigenvalues are distinct plus A invertible will imply $A^d$ will be invertible.
Say, $AC = I$
and , there exists P invertible and B diagonal such that , $PA^d P^{-1} = B$
then , $A = A^d C^{d-1} = P^{-1}BP C^{d-1} $
$\implies PAP^{-1} = BPC^{d-1}P^{-1}$
If I can say , $PC^{d-1}P^{-1}$ is diagonal I am done? Is it visible? Or is this a wrong approach?
Another thing I was thinking that maybe can solve this by some kind of induction and $A^d$ diagonalizable will imply $A^d A^{-1} = A^{d-1}$ also diagonalizable and so on, and the key point will be A is invertible.
Also, for the second part of the question, if A is not invertible then I think A will not be diagonalizable but I need better reasoning.
Edit : I just realize showing A is similar to $A^d$ will also suffice.
Take$$A=\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{bmatrix}.$$Then $A$ is not invertible, $A^2=0$, and $A$ is not diagonalizable.
However, if $A$ is invertible, its Jordan normal $J$ form will not have zeros on the main diagonal and $J^d$ is not diagonalizable unless it is already a diagonal matrix, in which case $A$ will be diagonalizable.