The question is,
Let $a_k$ be a countably infinite sequence of positive numbers st. $\gcd(a_1,a_2,...)=1$, does it exist a finite subsequence $a_{i_1},a_{i_2},...,a_{i_n}$ with $\gcd(a_{i_1},a_{i_2},...,a_{i_n})=1$?
or more generally,
Let $a_k$ be a countably infinite sequence of positive numbers st. $\gcd(a_1,a_2,...)=d$, does it exist a finite subsequence $a_{i_1},a_{i_2},...,a_{i_n}$ with $\gcd(a_{i_1},a_{i_2},...,a_{i_n})=d$?
Can anyone help with an elementary proof (pls. do not use advanced number theory stuff) or a counter example? Thank you.
This is a bit of a pedestrian argument, but you asked for one:
Recall that the GCD is $1$ if and only if no prime number divides all $a_i$. The number $a_1$ is divisible by a finite number of primes $p_1, \dots , p_k$. For each $p_j$ there exists some $a_{i_j}$ such that $p_j \nmid a_{i_j} $.
Now note that there is no prime number that divides each of $a_1, a_{i_1}, \dots , a_{i_k}$, and conclude.
(Note that the $a_{i_j}$ are not necessarily distinct.)