$\newcommand{\bra}[1]{\left<#1\right|}\newcommand{\ket}[1]{\left|#1\right>}\newcommand{\bk}[2]{\left<#1\middle|#2\right>}$
I am trying to establish some properties of the linear map: $T:\mathbb{C}^n \otimes \overline{\mathbb{C}^n} \to M_n(\mathbb{C})$ given by: $T(\ket{i} \otimes \ket{j}) = \ket{i}\bra{j} \text{ , } 0 \leq i,j \leq n-1$.
Where $\otimes$ denotes the tensor product, $\overline{\mathbb{C}^n}$ is the conjugate space of the complex (finite) Hilbert space $\mathbb{C}^n$, and $M_n(\mathbb{C})$ is the set of $n\times n$ matrices over $\mathbb{C}$.
I want to show the following:
(i) T is a bijection that preserves inner products (under the Hilbert-Schmidt inner product on $M_n(\mathbb{C})$
(ii) $T(\ket{\psi}\otimes\ket{\varphi} = \ket{\psi}\bra{\varphi}$ for every $\ket{\psi}, \ket{\varphi} \in \mathbb{C}^n$.
I think part of my trouble is figuring out the Dirac notation / how the outer product works. I'm not sure exactly what $\ket{i}\bra{j}$ looks like as a matrix (obviously it's a matrix in $M_n(\mathbb{C})$ but I'm not quite sure what the entries look like).
Also, I think part (ii) of the question is an immediate consequence from the fact that $T$ is a linear, inner product preserving bijection, but I'm a bit confused about why $\ket{\varphi}$ is now coming from $\mathbb{C}^n$ rather than $\overline{\mathbb{C}^n}$.
Any help is appreciated.
In my opinion, this is one of several troubles with Dirac's notation. When you see the elements of $\mathbb C^n$ ("kets") as columns vectors, the "bras" are the adjoints, i.e. their conjugate tranposes. So you have, in $\mathbb C^2$, $$ |1\rangle=\begin{bmatrix} 1\\0\end{bmatrix},\ \ \langle 1|=\begin{bmatrix} 1\\0\end{bmatrix}^*=\begin{bmatrix} 1&0\end{bmatrix}. $$ Mathematicians usually use $\{e_1,\ldots,e_n\}$ for the canonical basis of $\mathbb C^n$, and so your map is $$ T(e_i\otimes e_j)=e_ie_j^*. $$ And now you can calculate the entries of the matrix explicitly.
To see that $T$ is a bijection, you just check that $\{e_i\otimes e_j\}_{i,j=1,\ldots,n}$ is a basis of $\mathbb C^n\otimes\mathbb C^n$, and that $\{e_ie_j^*\}_{i,j=1,\ldots,n}$ is a basis of $M_n(\mathbb C)$ (we usually call the matrices $e_ie_j^*$ the "matrix units").
For the inner product, since the aforementioned bases are orthonormal bases, it is enough to check that $T$ preserves the inner product of basis elements. We have \begin{align} \langle T(e_i\otimes e_j),T(e_s\otimes e_t)\rangle &=\langle e_ie_j^*,e_se_t^*\rangle=\operatorname{Tr}((e_se_t^*)^*e_ie_j^*) =\operatorname{Tr}(e_te_s^*e_ie_j^*) =e_s^*e_i\,\operatorname{Tr}(e_te_j^*)\\ &=\delta_{i,s}\,\delta_{j,t}=\langle e_i,e_s\rangle\,\langle e_j,e_t\rangle\\ &=\langle e_i\otimes e_j,e_s\otimes e_t\rangle. \end{align}
As for your last question, $\langle \varphi|\in\overline{\mathbb C^n}$ is the adjoint of $|\varphi\rangle\in\mathbb C^n$. The confusion arises is that the domain of $T$ is $\mathbb C\otimes \mathbb C$. Then, on the right, you take the adjoint of the second coordinate.
And yes, part (ii) follows as you say: if $\varphi=\sum_{s=1}^n \varphi_se_s$ and $\psi=\sum_{t=1}^n \psi_te_t$, then \begin{align} T(\varphi\otimes\psi) &=\sum_{s,t} \varphi_s\overline{\psi_t}\,T(e_s\otimes e_t)\\ &=\sum_{s,t} \varphi_s\overline{\psi_t}\,e_se_t^*\\ &=\left(\sum_s\varphi_se_s\right)\,\left(\sum_t\psi_te_t\right)^*\\ &=\varphi\psi^*. \end{align}