From Wikipedia
a linear operator $f$ between two topological vector spaces is continuous if $f(V)$ is bounded for some neighborhood $V$ of $0$.
I wonder why it is true?
If I understand correctly, "$f(V)$ is bounded for some neighborhood $V$ of $0$" is same as saying $f$ is locally bounded?
I saw elsewhere that for a linear operator between two TVSes, continuity implies mapping bounded subsets to bounded subsets.
So if $f$ is linear mapping between two TVSes, does "$f(V)$ is bounded for some neighborhood $V$ of $0$" imply that $f$ maps bounded subsets to bounded subsets?
Thanks and regards!
Let $f: X\to Y$ be a linear mapping between two TVS with the property that $f(V)$ is bounded for some neighbourhood $V$ of $0$. It suffices to show that $f$ is continuous at $0$, let $U$ be a neighbourhood of $0$ at $Y$. By definition of being bounded there is a $t$ so that $f(V)\subseteq t\cdot U$ this implies $\frac 1 t\cdot f(V)\subseteq U$. Since $\frac 1 t\cdot f(V)=f(\frac 1 t \cdot V)$ and $\frac 1 t \cdot V$ is open we obtain that $f$ is continuous.