i want to find the fourier transform of this function:
and since it is an like function the b_n is zero.
And also since it the function is like i thought i could only take the integral from 0 to pi and multiple it by 2, but then i get the wrong a_0 and a_n coeffisent. howcome?
$$ a_0 = \frac{1}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f(x)dx$$ $$ a_n = \frac{2}{L}\int_{0}^{L}f(x)cos(\frac{n\pi x}{L})dx$$
$$ a_0 = \frac{1}{2\pi}2\int_{0}^{\pi}sin(x)dx$$ $$ a_n = \frac{2}{2\pi}2\int_{0}^{\pi}sin(x)cos(\frac{n\pi x}{2\pi})dx$$
but how come this be wrong?