I have some doubts about my solution, since I am not familiar with measure theory.
This is the question:
Let $a > 0, u\colon[0,a] \to [0,+\infty)$ continous. Show:
$ \exists L \geq 0\ \forall t \in [0,a]: u(t) \le \int_0^t Lu(s)\;ds \implies \forall t \in [0,a]: u(t) = 0 $
My attempt is:
We show the contraposition:
$ \exists t \in [0,a]: u(t) \neq 0 \implies \forall L \geq 0 \;\exists j \in [0,a]: u(j) > \int_{0}^{j}Lu(s) ds $
If $ u(0) > 0 $ choose $ j = 0 $.
Now suppose $ u(0) = 0 $. We can define by assumption some $ 0 < s := \inf\{t \in [0,a]\ |\ \forall j < t: u(j) = 0\ \text{and}\ u(t) \neq 0 \} $
Hence, we use the integrability of $u$ and choose $j := s$.
\begin{align*} \int_{0}^{j}Lu(s) \,ds = 0 < u(j) \end{align*}
But I am not sure if this integral exists, since the upper bound is some infimum, and even if it converges, that it is $0$.
I would be happy about any advice.
Thank you!
A completely different approach motivated by Grönwall's lemma:
Define $V(t) = L\int_0^t u(s)\,ds$. Notice that $V \ge 0$ and $V \in C^1[0,a]$ and we have
$$V'(t) = Lu(t) \le L^2\int_0^tu(s)\,ds = LV(t)$$
Multiply this inequality with $e^{-Lt}$ to get $V'(t)e^{-Lt} \le LV(t)e^{-Lt}$ so
$$\frac{d}{dt}\big(V(t)e^{-Lt}\big) = e^{-Lt}(V'(t) - LV(t)) \le 0$$
Integrating this on $[0,x]$ gives
$$V(x)e^{-Lx} = V(x)e^{-Lx} - V(0) = \int_0^x \frac{d}{dt}\big(V(t)e^{-Lt}\big)\,dt \le 0$$
so $V(x) \le 0, \forall x \in [0,a]$. Therefore $V \equiv 0$ so $u \equiv 0$.