Is the following statement correct ?
A is a formula in PA without a quantifier and A is true for the standard model of arithmetic, i.e. the model |N = (N,+,×,0,1,<) This means: |N |= A
==>
A is proofable in PA. This means: PA |- A
Example: |N |= (x+y)^2 =x^2 + 2xy + y^2 ===> PA |- (x+y)^2 =x^2 + 2xy + y^2
If this statement is wrong, please give me a counterexample
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$$ \text{You gave a counterexample: true in N but not PA-provable.} \\ \text{But there are so many examples with: true in N and PA-provable: } \\ \text{I define: } \\ \text{I_N} = \{0,1,2, ...\} \text{ is the set of intuitive natural numbers} \\ \bar 0 \; and \; \bar 1 \text{ are the constants from PA} \\ \oplus and \circ \text{ are the functions in PA} \\ \text{when z is element from I_N, I define:} \\ \bar z := \bar 1 \oplus ... \oplus + \bar 1 \quad \text{n-times} \\ \text{I proofed the following statement "S1"} \\ \text{When n is element from I_N then we have:} \\ PA \vdash \forall x \forall y \; (\bar z = x \oplus y \quad .\rightarrow. \quad \bigvee_{i=0}^z (x=\bar i \land y=\overline{z-i}) \\ \text{I assume, that there are "many" of "similar" statements like S1.} \\ \text{Is it possible to formulate a statement "S", so that "S1" follows from "S" ?} \\ $$
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