Let $f\in k[x_i,i=0,\ldots ,n]$ be a a polynomial which contains $x_0$ (i.e. polynomial like $f=x_1$ is not allowed), where $k$ is a field with characteristic $0$. We define a map $$Q_a: k[x_i,i=0,\ldots ,n] \to k[x_i,i=1,\ldots ,n]$$ which sends $f(x_0,\ldots,x_n)$ to $f(a_1x_1+\ldots+a_n x_n, x_1,\ldots,x_n)$, where $a=(a_1,\ldots a_n)$ is a parameter.
My question is
if $a\neq a'$, is it true that $Q_a(f)\neq Q_{a'}(f)$?
I think this should be true, but I did not find a good way to show it.
Counterexample: let $f(x_0,x_1,x_2)=x_0^2+x_1^2+x_2^2$. Let $a=(1,-1)$, and $a'=(-1,1)$.
Then $Q_a(f)=Q_{a'}(f)$.