I have a problem proving $$\int_{0}^\infty dx {\left(\int_{0}^\infty e^{-x^2t}\sin t\, dt\right)}=\int_{0}^\infty dt\left( \int_{0}^\infty e^{-x^2t}\sin t\, dx\right)$$.
I have been struggling for it for a long time, I don't know how to prove it. Or, maybe it is wrong? Can somebody tell me how to prove it? Why they can change the order of integration?
Here is a more elementary way of doing this.
\begin{align} \int_{0}^\infty \int_{0}^\infty e^{-x^2t}\sin t \;dt dx&= \int_{0}^\infty \mathcal{L}\{ \sin(t) \} \;dx\\ &=\int_{0}^\infty \frac{1}{(x^2)^2 + 1} dx \quad {\text{You are going to have to use partial fractions and a few substitutions. }}\\ &= \frac{\pi}{2\sqrt{2}} \end{align}