The other day my friend was asked to find $A$ and $B$ in the equation $$(x^3+2x+1)^{17} \equiv Ax+B \pmod {x^2+1}$$ A method was proposed by our teacher to use complex numbers and especially to let $x=i$ where $i$ is the imaginary unit. We obtain from that substitution $$(i+1)^{17} \equiv Ai+B \pmod {0}$$ which if we have understood it correctly is valid if we define $a \equiv b \pmod n$ to be $a=b+dn$. Running through with this definition we have $$\begin{align*} (i+1)^{17} &=\left(\sqrt{2}\left(\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)+\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)\right)^{17}\\ &=\sqrt{2}^{17}\left(\cos\left(\frac{17\pi}{4}\right)+\sin\left(\frac{17\pi}{4}\right)\right) \tag{De Moivre}\\ &=256\left(\sqrt{2}\left(\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)+\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right)\right)\right)\\ &=256\left(1+i\right) \\ &=256+256i\end{align*} $$ which gives the correct coefficient values for $A$ and $B$. Our questions are
- Why is this substitution valid to begin with?
- It seems here that the special case ($x=i$) implies the general case ($x$), why is that valid?
Here I think it's easier to see what's going on if we forgo the modular arithmetic and look at simple factoring and remainder. We have $$ (x^3+2x+1)^{17}=(x^2+1)Q(x)+Ax+B $$ for some polynomial $Q$. Which polynomial? We don't really care. The main point is that the left-hand side and the right-hand side are the same polynomial.
And since they are the same, they must give the same value when we evaluate them at $x=i$. So we insert $x=i$ and get $$ (i^3+2i+1)^{17}=(i^2+1)Q(i)+Ai+B\\ (i+1)^{17}=0\cdot Q(i)+Ai+B $$ Knowing that $A,B$ are real means we can find them directly from this, as $Q$ disappears.