I was reading this post Understanding proof of completeness of $L^{\infty}$ and it is mentioned that the sequence $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ converges uniformly on a conegligible set $N^C$. Could someone point out any useful consequences of this observation?
2026-03-31 06:30:37.1774938637
A question about uniform convergence in proof that $L^\infty$ is Banach.
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