A question of recurrence

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Consider the following recurrence

$L_0= 100$, $L_{k+1}=[ L_k^{1/2}]L_k,$

where $[x]=\max\{m\in \mathbb {Z} \mid m\leq x\} .$

I have to prove that

$$\displaystyle \lim_{k\rightarrow \infty}\frac {\log L_k}{ \left(\frac {3}{2}\right)^k \log L_0}=1. $$

My answer:

If $L_k^{1/2}$ is a integer number, then

$L_1= L_0^{3/2} $, $L_2= L_0^{ (3/2)^2} $,..., $L_k= L_0^{(3/2)^k} $.

The result is obtained by applying logarithm. How to control the fractional part in the general case?

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In the general case (that is, always), the formula does not hold. It is just that 100 is a big number, and a square at that, which makes the error too small to be visible with the naked eye. Try $L_0=2\text{ or }3$, that would make it stand out more prominently.

Really, your limit is just a product of terms of the form $\dfrac{\log L_{k+1}}{{3\over2}\log L_k}$. Every such term is no greater than 1. Calculate a few terms (up to $L_2$, if you insists on having $L_0=100$) and you'll find out that at least some of them are definitely smaller than 1. Just how could the product end up being 1?