There is a bit in the proof, the link, I couldn't understand. "There exists a sequence $(Π)$ of partitions, such that for each $$,$Π$ is an $+1/$-partition" How are we sure that there is a $+1/$-partition of the set $A$ for all $n$? https://math.stackexchange.com/a/641727/1112387
2026-03-13 21:57:38.1773439058
A Question Over set partitioning
17 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in REAL-ANALYSIS
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