I am asked to find the limit of the following sum:
$$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n^2}\right)} $$
My attempt:
For $n\rightarrow\infty$ and for $1\leq k\leq n$:
$$ \sin{\frac{k}{n^2}}\approx \frac{k}{n^2} $$
So
$$ \sin{\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n^2}\right)}\approx \frac{k}{n^2}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)}=\frac{1}{n}\frac{k}{n}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)} $$
Thus, we get a reimann sum, so the limit would be equal to:
$$ \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n}\frac{k}{n}\sin{\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)}=\int_{0}^{1}x\sin{x}dx=\sin{1}-\cos{1} $$
Now the question is, how can I prove this rigorously because the way "I did it" is obviously incorrect, if someone can guide me through a rigorous proof, it would be perfect.
Thanks in advance.
For any $x\in[0,1]$ we have $x-\frac{x^3}{6}\leq\sin(x)\leq x$. We have that $$ \lim_{n\to +\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sin\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\frac{k}{n^2} = \int_{0}^{1}x\sin(x)\,dx = \sin(1)-\cos(1)\tag{1}$$ since $x\sin(x)$ is a continuous function on $[0,1]$, hence a Riemann-integrable function.
For the same reason $$ \lim_{n\to +\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sin\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\frac{k^3}{n^4} = \int_{0}^{1}x^3\sin(x)\,dx = 5\cos(1)-3\sin(1)\tag{2}$$ hence $\sum_{k=1}^{n}\sin\left(\frac{k}{n}\right)\frac{k^3}{6n^6}=O\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)$ and we are allowed to simply replace $\sin\left(\frac{k}{n^2}\right)$ with $\frac{k}{n^2}$ in the given sum: the difference of the associated sums is negligible for large values of $n$.