Problem Statement: If $\left\{f_{n}\right\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a sequence of polynomials of degree $\leq m$ this is uniformly bounded on a compact interval $I$, then $\left\{f_{n}\right\}$ is equicontinuous on $I$.
I am trying to work through this problem, but I am having trouble determining my choices of $\delta$ and $\epsilon$ to show equicontinuity.
So we know that $\exists M>0$ such that $\lVert f_{n}(x)\rVert \leq M$, $\forall x\in X, n\in \mathbb{N}$.
Then to prove equicontinuity, I must show that $\forall \epsilon >0$, $\exists\delta=\delta(\epsilon)>0$ so that $$\lVert x-y\rVert <\delta \Rightarrow \lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)\rVert <\epsilon,\ \forall x,y\in I, n\in\mathbb{N}.$$
One approach: Since polynomials are continuous, taking $\epsilon >0$, we can find a $\delta=\delta(\epsilon)$ so that for any $y\in B_{\delta}(x)$, we have $$\lVert x-y\rVert <\delta \Rightarrow \lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)\rVert <\epsilon,\ \forall x,y\in I, n\in\mathbb{N}.$$ But we must show that this is true for any $x,y\in I$. Then since $I$ is compact, $\exists$ a Lebesgue number $r>0$ so that $\lVert x-y\rVert <r$ implies that $x,y\in B_{r}(z)$ for some $z\in I$. Then $\lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(z)\rVert<\epsilon$ and $\lVert f_{n}(y)-f_{n}(z)\rVert<\epsilon$, so $$\lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)\rVert\leq \lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(z)\rVert+\lVert f_{n}(y)-f_{n}(z)\rVert<2\epsilon.$$
I know I must be missing an important piece of the proof, because i did not use the fact that $f_{n}$ has degree less than $m$, nor the boundedness of the sequence.
Alternatively: I was trying to define $$f_{n}(x)=c_{m}x^{m}+\cdots c_{1}x+c_{0}$$ so then $$\lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)\rVert=\lVert c_{m}(x^{m}-y^{m})+\cdots +c_{1}(x-y)\rVert=\lVert c_{m}\frac{x^{m}-y^{m}}{x-y}+\cdots+ c_{2}(x+y)+c_{1}\rVert \lVert x-y\rVert$$
From there I was trying to use boundedness of the polynomials to show $\lVert f_{n}(x)-f_{n}(y)\rVert\rightarrow 0$, but in this case, the normed difference would depend on delta rather than epsilon.
Should i define $\delta$ in terms of epsilon to get the result I want? I was having trouble doing this, unless i just let $\lVert x-y\rVert<\epsilon$, but I think it should not be that easy? Also, in this approach, I have not used compactness of $I$!
Any tips on how to solve this problem are appreciated!
A hint: from this sequence one may obtain the sequence of derivatives $(f_n')_{n=1}^\infty$. You may show the $f_n'$ are uniformly bounded. From there, the mean value theorem should do the trick.