My question (more of a hypothesis really) is basically this: If a function $f(x)$ is defined such that $f'(x)$ is not constant and never the same for any 2 values of $x$. Then there do not exist positive integers $a,b,c$ and $a\le b\le c$ such that,
$$\int_0^{a} f(x)dx = \int_b^{c} f(x)dx\tag1$$
Taking $f(x)=x^n$ then
- for $n \gt 1$, $(1)$ becomes Fermat's Last Theorem, while
- for $n=1$, $(1)$ becomes $a^2 + b^2 = c^2$
Maybe this has something to do with the "curviness" (I am 16 so please forgive me for non-technical language) of the graphs of $x^n$ since for $n=1$ the graph is linear and for $n>1$ the graph is curvy.
My school teachers are not talking to me about this because "it is out of syllabus", so I thought maybe this community could help.
Interesting. But not true. If you define $f(x)=\dfrac1{x+1}$, then$$\int_0^1f(x)\,\mathrm dx=\int_1^3f(x)\,\mathrm dx,$$since$$\int_\alpha^\beta f(x)\,\mathrm dx=\log\left(\frac{\beta+1}{\alpha+1}\right).$$