Does the following equation hold:
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} x^x = \left(\lim_{x\to\infty} x\right)^{\!x}?$$
I know that
$$ \lim_{x\to\infty} x^n = \left(\lim_{x\to\infty} x\right)^{\!n}$$
holds if $n$ is different from $x$, but I am not sure if it holds where $n=x$.
limit is similar to function, when you take limit, you let $x$ go to a specific point, or infinity, and you will get a exactly ONE answer if limit exist.( limit is unique if the space is Hausdorff, $R^n$ is Hausdorff).
I will slightly modify your question to :
$\lim_{x\to\infty} (\frac{1}{x}) ^x = (\lim_{x\to\infty} (\frac{1}{x}))^{x}$?
if we calculate the limit, we have $0=0^x$.
for the right hand side of the equality, without any information on $x$, we cannot compute anything.