Let $A$ be a subset of $\mathbb N$
Prove that $\sum_{n\in A} \frac{1}{n}$ converges $\implies \frac{1}{n} $ #$(A \cap[1,n]) \to_{\infty} 0 $
For the moment, I can see the reciprocal is false by taking the set $A$ of all primes. (The question was to study the link between the two statements).
Do you have an idea for that? Reasoning by contradiction does not seem easy to write.
Enumerate $A$ increasingly as $\{q_n, n\in \mathbb{N}\}$ (if $A$ is finite, there's no need to do this, because then the question is really easy).
Then the assumption is that $\displaystyle\sum \frac{1}{q_n}$ is a convergent series. But since its general term $\frac{1}{q_n}$ is decreasing, this implies $\frac{1}{q_n} = o(\frac{1}{n})$: $\frac{n}{q_n} \to 0$
Given $n$, pick $k$ such that $q_k \leq n < q_{k+1}$, then $\frac{1}{n} |(A\cap [1,n])| \leq \frac{1}{q_k} |(A\cap [1,q_k])| = \frac{k}{q_k} \to 0$ ($k$ tends to infinity when $n$ does)