I have done no number theory. With that in mind, please give me a proof for the statement below:
$(A\subseteq\Bbb Z^+) \land(x\in A \land y\in A\implies x+y\in A)\land (gcd(A)=1) \implies \exists n_0\in \Bbb Z^+,\forall n\in\Bbb Z^+,n\ge n_0(n \in A) $
I have seen other proofs like this
and this
which I wasn't able to follow. Whatever terms you're using here please define them. Please don't presuppose of me any knowledge of number theory.