I'm reviewing a proof regarding $f$, a symmetric bilinear form having a basis such that it's matrix with respect to this basis is diagonal.
Here's a summarization:
- For $n=1$ there's nothing to prove. Let's assume that $n>1$.
- Let's also assume $f\ne 0$ (Otherwise, any basis would work).
- By the polar lemma: there's a $u_1 \in V$ such that $c_1 = f(u_1, u_1)$, and $u_1 \ne 0$.
- We denote $V_1 = \text{span}(u_1)$ and $V_2 = \{v\in V\ :\ f(u_1, v) = 0\}$.
- claim: $V = V_1 \oplus V_2$.
Now, at this point the author claims that $\dim V = \dim V_1 + \dim V_2$. Why?
Also, why is it true that $u_1 \ne 0$?
Thanks.
$f$ is a symmetric bilinear form; this mean that
$$f:V\times V\longrightarrow \mathbb{K}$$
is linear in each components. So if you fix the first one as $u_1$ then you have
$$g=f(u_1,\text{ }):V\longrightarrow \mathbb{K}$$ which is linear. By construction $g(u_1)=f(u_1,u_1)=c$ with $u_1\neq 0$. The kernel of $g$ is exactly the space $V_2$ as subspace of $V$ which has dimension $n-1$. On the other hand $V_1\cong \mathbb{K}$. So you can conclude.