Is it true that $\#(A \times B) = lcm(\#A , \#B)$ where $A$ and $B$ are unitary and commutative rings? the symbol $\#$ denotes the cardinal. I'm not sure if this statement is true or false, I have not found any counterexample yet. Any help would be appreciated.
2026-05-15 03:20:51.1778815251
$\#(A \times B) = lcm(\#A , \#B)$ where $A$ and $B$ are unitary and commutative rings?
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This is not true. Consider $A = B = \mathbb{Z} / (2)$. Then $\#A = \#B = 2$, so $lcm(\#A, \#B) = 2$. But $\#(A \times B) = 4$.
In general, we have $\#(A \times B) = (\#A) \times (\#B)$ for any sets $A$, $B$. And obviously it's not always true that $a \times b = lcm(a, b)$.