Let $I$ be an ideal of a ring $R$. It is mentioned in the book An Introduction to Group Rings (by Sehgal and Milies) that the canonical homomorphism $RG \rightarrow (R/I)G$ maps $Z(RG)$, center of group ring $RG$, onto $Z((R/I)G)$.
It can't see why this restriction is actually onto.
Thanks for any help.
Update: According to the below counterexample the statement is not true in general. it can be corrected as
Proposition: Let $I$ be an ideal of a ring $R$. Then for any group $G$, the canonical homomorphism $RG \rightarrow (R/I)G$ maps $Z(RG)$ onto $Z((R/I)G)$ iff it maps $Z(R)$ onto $Z((R/I))$.
which its proof is given by Alex W.
Below for any finite subset $S$ of a ring we denote $\widetilde S:=\sum_{a\in S}a$. We will use the following well known fact (which is easy to check).
Theorem 1. Let A be any ring, $G$ - finite group, and $C_1,\ldots,C_n$ - all distinct conjugacy classes of $G$. Then $Z(AG)$ is a free $Z(A)$-module with a basis $\widetilde{C}_1,\ldots,\widetilde{C}_n$.
We now prove the following statement.
Theorem 2. Let $\phi:A\to B$ be a rings' homomorphism, $G$ - a finite group, $\phi:AG\to BG$ - standard continuation of $\phi$. Then $\phi(Z(AG))=Z(BG)$ iff $\phi(Z(A))=Z(B)$.
Proof. By the theorem 1, $Z(AG)=\bigoplus_{i=1}^n Z(A)\widetilde{C}_i$, hence $$ \phi(Z(AG))=\phi(\sum_{i=1}^n Z(A)\widetilde{C}_i)= \sum_{i=1}^n\phi(Z(A)\widetilde{C}_i)= \sum_{i=1}^n \phi(Z(A))\widetilde{C}_i=\bigoplus_{i=1}^n\phi(Z(A))\widetilde{C}_i. $$ Besides that, $$ Z(BG)=\bigoplus_{i=1}^n Z(B)\widetilde{C}_i. $$ In such a way, $$ \phi(Z(AG))=Z(BG)\Leftrightarrow \bigoplus_{i=1}^n\phi(Z(A))\widetilde{C}_i= \bigoplus_{i=1}^n Z(B)\widetilde{C}_i\Leftrightarrow\phi(Z(A))=Z(B). $$