Consider the undamped harmonic oscillator $x''(t) + \omega_0^2 x(t) = A cos(\omega t)$. The general (real) solution of the homogenous equation is given by $x_h(t) = a cos(\omega_0 t) + b sin(\omega_0 t)$. For the inhomogeneous we get a particular solution $x_p(t) = \frac{A}{2 \omega} t sin(\omega t)$ (via the Ansatz $x_p(t) = c t sin (\omega t)$). Why do we say that the forcing term is 'resonant' if $\omega = \omega_0$? Is it meant that the solution simply tends in this case to infinity for $t \to \infty$?
What is the difference if we consider the damped oscillator $x''(t) + r x' + \omega_0^2 x(t) = A cos(\omega t)$? I suppose that in this case $x(t)$ gets maximal if $\omega = \omega_0$. Is this correct and what more could one say about resonance here?
Taking the Fourier transform you get $$(\omega_{0}^{2}-\Omega^{2})\hat{x}(\Omega)=\pi{A}(\delta(\Omega-\omega)+\delta(\Omega+\omega))$$ $$\hat{x}(\Omega)=\frac{A\pi(\delta(\Omega-\omega)+\delta(\Omega+\omega))}{(\omega_{0}^{2}-\Omega^{2})}$$ $$x(t)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{\mathbb{R}}\hat{x}(\Omega)e^{i\Omega{t}}d\Omega=\frac{A\cos(\omega{t})}{\omega_{0}^{2}-\omega^{2}}$$ When $\omega_{0}\rightarrow\omega$ solution diverges, in physics you say it's a resonance.