If Schanuel's conjecture is true, why does it mean that $\pi$ and $e$ are algebricaly independent? I just understand that we have $deg.tr_{\mathbb{Q}} \mathbb{Q} (e,i\pi) \geq 2$.
2026-03-26 06:33:43.1774506823
About Schanuel's conjecture
177 Views Asked by user383659 https://math.techqa.club/user/user383659/detail AtRelated Questions in NUMBER-THEORY
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