I had learned that the set is countable if and only if it is finite or countably infinite. We know well that the set $\mathbb{N}=\{1,2,3,4,\dots\}$ is an infinite set. In order to find out if the finite set $X$ is countable, we have to check if there exists an injection $f:X\to \mathbb{N}$ such that $|X|\leq |\mathbb{N}|$. If there is an bijection $f:X\to\mathbb{N}$, then $|X|=|\mathbb{N}|$ and the set $X$ is countably infinite.
Question: Is $\mathbb{N}$ defined to be countable, or has it ever been proven to be countable?
Edit: I know that there's a bijection from $\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{N}$, and then $|\mathbb{N}|=|\mathbb{N}|$. But this doesn't really answer my question. What if it were $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ instead? I just want to know where the idea come from to decide that $\mathbb{N}$ is countable. And then we talk about other sets, like $(0,1)$ and $\mathbb{R}$. Have the mathematicians chosen that the $\mathbb{N}$ is defined to be countable? I can not find any sources that explain about it. Many definitions about the countable set is including the "countable" set $\mathbb{N}$, for example, a set $X$ is countable if and only if $X\leq \mathbb{N}$.
Edit: I was really bad at expressing what I meant. I'll write down short how I found the "answer". In reality, I misunderstood definition completely that made me question something rubbish. The definition is
A set $X$ is countable, if and only if $|X|\leq \mathbb{N}$.
This doesn't say anything about $\mathbb{N}$ (which is what the question was about), but only about $X$. If letting $X=\mathbb{N}$ and that there's an injection from $X$ to $\mathbb{N}$ would imply that the set $X$ is countable. That's it.
Countably infinite sets are "the same size as" $\Bbb{N}$, which means that there's a bijection (a one-to-one correspondence) between them and the natural numbers. The identity function $\Bbb{N} \to \Bbb{N}$ is, of course, a bijection, showing that the set of natural numbers is countably infinite.
Cardinality ("size") of a set is a type of equivalence relation on sets: two sets are equivalent if they have the same cardinality. The reflexive property is what your question is about. It's worth trying to prove the other two properties: symmetry and transitivity.