For martingale, we have $E[X_{n+1}-EX_n|X_1,\dots,X_n]=0$, can we say $X_{n+1}-X_n$ is independent of $X_1,\dots,X_n$?
2026-04-09 14:30:12.1775745012
About the martingale.
26 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in MARTINGALES
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