Is it true that if $n$ divides $m$ , $\sigma(\frac mn) \leq \frac{\sigma(m)}n$. If so this has a bearing on counterexamples to Robin's inequality.
2026-03-25 14:18:22.1774448302
About the 'sigma' function.
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Write $m=kn$ then we show that $$n\sigma(k)\leq\sigma(m)$$ for every positive n we have $n\leq\sigma(n)$ then $$n\sigma(k)\leq\sigma(n)\sigma(k)\ \ \ \ (*)$$ if $gcd(n,k)=1$ $\sigma(n)\sigma(k)=\sigma(m)$ because $\sigma$ is a multiplicative function.
If $gcd(n,k)=d\neq1$ we can write $n=ds \ and\ k=dt$ now for $(*)$ we have that $$n\sigma(k)\leq\sigma(n)\sigma(k)\leq\sigma(d)\sigma(s)\sigma(d)\sigma(t)$$ we want now that $$\sigma(d)\sigma(d)\sigma(s)\sigma(t)\leq\sigma(d^2)\sigma(s)\sigma(t)=\sigma(m)$$ i.e. $$\sigma(d)\sigma(d)\leq\sigma(d^2)$$ for multiplicativity of $\sigma$ we can prove this only for $d=p^a$ where p is prime and $a\geq1$ $$\sigma(p^a)=\frac{p^{a+1}-1}{p-1}$$ so we have to prove $$\left(\frac{p^{a+1}-1}{p-1}\right)^2\leq\frac{p^{2a+1}-1}{p-1}$$ and this it's true.