I have a quick question about the first isomorphism theorem. In our class the isomorphism theorem is broken up into several parts, but the first part is as such:
If $f$ is a factor map from $G \to G/K$ (where $K$ is a normal subgroup) then $f$ defines a one to one correspondence between all subgroups $H$ of $G$ containing $K$ and all subgroups of the factor group $G/K$.
I am confused as to what this theorem is saying, is it saying that if we consider the set of all subgroups such that $K$ is in $H$ that that will be isomorphic to the set of all subgroups $H$ is in $G/K$? Or is it saying that each subgroup that contains $K$ is isomorphic to each subgroup contained in $G/K$? The second possibility does not seem correct to me, but the first does not seem incredibly useful in the context of the theorem. I guess I just wanted to know if there was a less wordy and more symbol driven way of writing this statement.
Thank you in advance!
Say $N\trianglelefteq G$ and let $\pi:G\to G/N$ be the projection. The theorem states there is a bijection
$$\{H\,|~N\subseteq H\subseteq G\}\quad\longleftrightarrow\quad \{K\,|~K\subseteq G/N\}. \quad$$
The mutually inverse maps are $H\mapsto\pi(H)$ and $K\mapsto\pi^{-1}(K)$ (the inverse image).
Moreover, the two sets above are ordered by inclusion (in fact they are lattices), and both maps preserve the ordering, so this bijection is actually an isomorphism of lattices.