If $G$ is an abelian group, $S = \{ y \in G \; : \; y = x^2\; \exists x \in G\}$, and $T = \{ a \in G \; :\; a^2 = e\}$, then $G/T$ is isomorphic to $S$.
Proof:
Let $G$ be an abelian group, $S = \{ y \in G \; : \; y = x^2 \; \exists x \in G\}$, and $T = \{ a \in G \; : \; a^2 = e\}$.
Now $e^2 = ee = e$. So $e \in T$ and $T$ is nonempty.
Let $x,y \in T$ so $(xy^{-1})^2$ = $xy^{-1} xy^{-1} = xxy^{-1}y^{-1} = x^2 y^{-2} = x^2 (y^2)^{-1} = ee = e$.
Thus, $xy^{-1} \in T$ so $T \leq G$ by the Subgroup Test.
Let $t \in T$ and $g \in G$.
Then $(gtg^{-1})^2 = gtg^{-1} gtg^{-1} = gttg^{-1} = gt^2g^{-1} = geg^{-1} = gg^{-1} = e$.
Thus $gtg^{-1} \in T$ and $T ⊴ G$. Hence, $G/T$ is a group.
Do I have to prove $S$ is a group? Then to prove they are isomorphic to each other, I have to show a 1-1 and onto homomorphism, but I am not sure how to do that.
Yes, in principle you should show $S$ is a group, but this shouldn't be too difficult. The meat of the problem is exhibiting the existence of the isomorphism.
The easiest way to do this is to use the first isomorphism theorem:
(That the kernel of a homomorphism is a normal subgroup is something you should be familiar with, or at least it's easy to prove.)
So a good strategy for this proof is to think of an onto homomorphism from $G$ to $S$, and show that its kernel is $T$. In fact, from the definition of $S$ there is a quite natural onto homomorphism to consider. (I don't want to give it away, it would be too easy then!)