This thing came up in a combinatorics course I am taking.
Choose a fixed set of primes $p_1,p_2,\dots,p_k$ and let $A_n$ be number of integers in $\{1,2,\dots,n\}$ which are not divisible by any of the $p_i$'s. $A_n$ is given by $ n - \sum_{1\leq i_1 \leq k} \lfloor \frac{n}{p_{i_1}} \rfloor + \sum_{1\leq i_1 < i_2 < k} \lfloor \frac{n}{p_{i_1}p_{i_2}}\rfloor - \dots $. Now, if $n$ is divisible by each of the $p_i$'s then we have the simpler expression : $A_n = n \prod_{i=1}^{k}(1-\frac{1}{p_i})$(added later : note I am not assuming $n = \prod_{i=1}^{k}p_i$ here, this holds true whenever $n = c \prod_{i=1}^{k} p_i $ for some integer c, since each $\lfloor \frac{n}{p_{i_1} \dots p_{i_j}} \rfloor = \frac{n}{p_{i_1} \dots p_{i_j}}\ )$.
Another student pointed out that even if $n$ does not have $\prod_{i=1}^{k} p_i$ as a factor, the approximation $B_n = n \prod_{i=1}^{k}(1-\frac{1}{p_i})$ to $A_n$ is quite close in some specific cases. It is easy to see that $\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{A_n - B_n}{n}=0$ as $\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{n}\lfloor \frac{n}{p_{i_1}p_{i_2}\dots p_{i_j}} \rfloor \to \frac{1}{p_{i_1}p_{i_2} \dots p_{i_j}},$ however that is not strong enough to imply that $A_n - B_n$ will be always close. Is there any way to analyze how well this approximation will perform in general? I am interested in the worst case for small to moderately sized $n$.
Just to give a feel of how close $A_n$ and $B_n$ can get, assuming the set of primes is $\{2,3,7\}$ we have (assuming my program is correct):
n A(n) B(n)
17 5 4.86
27 8 7.71
37 11 10.57
107 31 30.57
1111 318 317.43
3001 858 857.43
4007 1145 1144.86
5000 1429 1428.57 .
To help with the notation I will change your $k$ to an $m$, so we have
$$ A_n = n - \sum \lfloor \frac{n}{p_i} \rfloor + \sum \lfloor \frac{n}{p_i p_j} \rfloor - \sum \lfloor \frac{n}{p_i p_j p_k} \rfloor + \cdots, $$
where the summations are over distinct primes in our set $ \lbrace p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_m \rbrace ,$ and
$$ B_n = n \prod_{i=1}^m \left( 1- \frac{1}{p_i} \right). $$
Using $ x \ge \lfloor x \rfloor > x – 1 $ we have
$$ A_n \ge n - \sum \frac{n}{p_i} + \sum \frac{n}{p_i p_j} - \binom{m}{2} -
\sum \frac{n}{p_i p_j p_k} + \sum \frac{n}{p_i p_j p_k p_l} - \binom{m}{4} + \cdots.$$
Noting that $$\binom{m}{0}+\binom{m}{2}+\binom{m}{4} \cdots = 2^{m-1},$$
we obtain $A_n \ge B_n – 2^{m-1}.$ Similarly, we have $A_n \le B_n + 2^{m-1}$ and hence we can bound
$$ \left| \frac{A_n – B_n}{n} \right| \le \frac{2^{m-1}}{n} = O(1/n).$$
However, if we take $n \equiv -1 \textrm{ mod } \prod_{i=1}^m p_i$ then we have
$$A_n – B_n = \prod_{i=1}^m \left( 1- \frac{1}{p_i} \right) = \text{a constant.} \quad (1)$$
So the difference is a constant infinitely often.
EDIT: Since the differences between the $ \lfloor \frac{n}{p_i p_j \ldots} \rfloor $ and the $ \frac{n}{p_i p_j \ldots} $ are a maximum when $n \equiv -1 \textrm{ mod } \prod_{i=1}^m p_i$ it appears we have
$$A_n – B_n \le \prod_{i=1}^m \left( 1- \frac{1}{p_i} \right), \quad (2)$$
with equality when $n \equiv -1 \textrm{ mod } \prod_{i=1}^m p_i.$ I do not have a proof of this latter claim, although I have a proof for (1), which I hope to be able to modify to prove (2).
EDIT2: I could not find a proof of (2) because, sadly, it's not true! However, (1) is exact for the given $n.$
EDIT3:
Here's a vast improvement on my previous comments, which I believe solves your problem completely.
Suppose $n \equiv -r \textrm{ mod } \prod_{i=1}^m p_i, $ where $ 0 \le r < \prod_{i=1}^m p_i$ then we have
$$A_n – B_n \le r \prod_{i=1}^m \left( 1- \frac{1}{p_i} \right).$$
I proved this simply by expanding $A_n – B_n$ and doing the summations. Also, I believe the exact formula to be
$$A_n – B_n = \delta + r \prod_{i=1}^m \left( 1- \frac{1}{p_i} \right) - \Phi_P(r),$$
where $\delta = 1$ when $r$ is coprime to all the $p_i$ and $0$ otherwise, and $\Phi_P(r)$ is the number of positive integers $\le r$ which are coprime to the $p_i.$
Note that when $n=711,$ $r=9,$ $\delta = 0$ and $\Phi_P(9) = 2,$ $P=\lbrace 2,3,5 \rbrace,$ so the above formula gives $$A_{711}-B_{711} = 9 \left( 1 - \frac{1}{2} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{5} \right) – 2 = 0.4$$ which agrees with your $190-189.6 = 0.4$
When $n=107,$ $r=19,$ $\delta = 1$ and $\Phi_P(19) = 6,$ $P=\lbrace 2,3,7 \rbrace,$ so we have $$A_{107}-B_{107} = 1 + 19 \left( 1 - \frac{1}{2} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{3} \right) \left( 1 - \frac{1}{7} \right) – 6 = 0.42857\ldots,$$
which is also in agreement with the rounded figures you've given in the question.
Sorry, I do not have time to type up the full proof.